v50, I will tell you why

$BOB I just don't understand, the long position funding is more than twice that of the short position, and the large trader long-short ratio is also slightly more long. How can this rate be negative like this? The logic doesn't make any sense. This situation makes it so that shorts not only suffer losses from the rise in coin prices but also have to pay subsidies to the longs. Mainly, the funding for shorts is far lower than that for longs. If anyone understands, please explain.